Did the Universe Come from Nothing?

by Andy Burke on August 28, 2010

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The doctrine of creation ex nihilo – the belief that God created the universe from nothing – seems to be very popular within Christian apologetics.  In fact, apologist William Lane Craig not only subscribes to this doctrine, but he uses it to support his famous Kalam Cosmological Argument.  Quoting philosopher Anthony Kenny, Craig commonly states in his debates that “a proponent of the Big Bang theory, at least if he is an atheist, must believe that the universe came from nothing and by nothing.”  But as we shall see, modern cosmology certainly does not support Craig’s claims.

. . . But how can this be?  Doesn’t Craig quote many physicists who also state that the universe began from nothing?

To begin with the above mentioned statement by Anthony Kenny – a quote which Craig uses nearly every time he presents his Kalam argument – we can dismiss this on the grounds that it’s nothing more than a bald assertion.  The quote is taken from a 1969 book titled The Five Ways (p. 66) in which Kenny gives no explanation or justification for this claim.  And because Kenny is a philosopher, not a physicist or cosmologist, I’m not inclined to simply take his word for it.

THE STANDARD BIG BANG MODEL

However, Craig does quote physicists Frank Tippler, John Barrow, Paul Davies and Fred Hoyle who make similar claims that the universe came from “nothing.”  Now, I wont take the time to deconstruct each quote (especially since I’ve already done this herehere and here), but in a nutshell, each statement by these physicists refers to the Standard Big Bang model.

If you remember your high school science, you may know that if we use the Standard model to extrapolate to the beginning of the universe then we can come to the conclusion that the universe began in the form of a singularity.  Now, a singularity has zero volume – which seems to be the reason why all the above physicists refer to it as nothing – but a singularity also has infinite density, infinite pressure, and infinite temperature.  So how do these scientists marry these three properties with the concept of “nothing?”  As far as I can tell, they don’t.

William Lane Craig, however, has indeed tried to argue that the concept of infinite density is synonymous with nothing, but the attempt was so horrible that I shall simply skip it (but you can read a post I made on this subject by clicking here).

Note: Craig sometimes will instead argue that there was nothing prior to the singularity (and that therefore the singularity came from nothing), but even ignoring the fact that the Standard model does not state anything like this, his argument requires you first believe in a tensed theory of time whereas most physicists hold a tenseless theory of time (i.e. the idea that time is a 4th dimension).  This will probably be covered in a future post.

But perhaps there’s an even bigger objection to these above physicists using the Standard model to describe the origins of the universe: the current consensus of contemporary physicists and cosmologists (which is not represented by Craig’s sources) is that the Standard model cannot be extrapolated that far back. As Steven Hawking famously wrote in A Brief History of Time (p. 50), “It is perhaps ironic that, having changed my mind, I am now trying to convince other physicists that there was in fact no singularity at the beginning of the universe—as we shall see later, it can disappear once quantum effects are taken into account.” — that was written in 1989.

Now, let’s fast forward to 2010 where theoretical physicist Ethan Siegal writes, “[T]he idea that our Universe started from a singularity was a very good one back when we thought that the only important things in our Universe were matter and radiation, but now that we know about inflation, there is no reason to believe that our Universe ever had a singularity in the past.”

In fact, there is great doubt that the Standard model can even tell us anything about where the universe came from.  Physicist/cosmologist Alan Guth puts it quite clearly in the preface to his book The Inflationary Universe where he writes, ”Despite its name, the big bang theory is not a theory of a bang at all.  It is really only a theory of the aftermath of a bang.  The equations of this theory describe how the primeval fireball expanded and cool and congealed . . . But  the standard big bang theory says nothing about what banged, why it banged, or what happened before it banged.”

OUR CURRENT UNDERSTANDING OF COSMIC ORIGINS

So what do we know about the origin of the universe?  Well, not very much.  I recently wrote to astrophysicist Randy Kimble (of NASA’s excellent site Ask An Astrophysicist) who told me that “we have no current understanding of the very beginning.”

However, there are at least two ideas which currently are heavily lauded within physics.  The first of these is Steven Hawking’s no-boundary proposal which states that the universe simply had no beginning (A Brief History of Time, p. 136).  Rather, Hawking equates time to the surface of the earth: it is finite yet it has no beginning.  In other words, there is a limited amount of area on earth for us to travel, just as there is a limited amount of time in the universe, but try as we might, we will never find a “beginning” or “end” of the earth nor will we find a “beginning” or “end” of time.  Clearly, this doesn’t help with the apologist claim that the universe came from nothing.

The second idea about the origin of the universe is a bit more useful to the proponents of doctrine of creation ex nihilo: Alexander Vilenkin’s “tunneling from nothing” hypothesis.  Simply put, Vilenkin’s model is a variation on Edward Tryon’s “vacuum fluctuation” model, but instead of the universe appearing within a background of space, the universe appears from an empty geometry (i.e. “nothing”).

As Vilenkin’s colleague Alan Guth explains, “Putting [general relativity and quantum mechanics] together, one can imagine that the universe started in the total empty geometry – absolute nothingness – and then made a quantum tunneling transition to a nonempty state. Calculations show that a universe created this way would typically be subatomic in size, but that is no problem . . . Vilenkin was able to invoke inflation to enlarge the universe to its current size” (The Inflationary Universe, p. 275).

But perhaps calling this creation from “absolute nothingness” is a bit confusing.  As Guth points out, Vilenkin’s “absolute nothingness” is “mathematically well-defined, and can be used as a starting point for theories of creation” (p. 273).

In fact, Vilenkin himself seems to dislike the terminology.  He writes in his book Many Worlds in One (p. 181), “[T]he state of ‘nothing’ cannot be identified with absolute nothingness.  The tunneling is described by the laws of quantum mechanics, and thus ‘nothing’ should be subject to these laws.  The laws of physics must have existed, even though there was no universe.”  So, the concept of “nothing” painted by Vilenkin’s hypothesis is very different from the concept of “nothing” as preferred by Craig which seems to be synonymous with the absence of all material reality.

In light of this, perhaps we should amend the aforementioned Anthony Kenny quote, which so often used by Craig, to something like, “a proponent of the Big Bang theory . . . might or might not believe that the universe came from nothing – depending on how you define the word.”

  • Theo Warner

    Excellent work!

  • Lisa Fite

    This is great! I’ll be referencing this post in the future I’m sure.

  • Timm Simpkins

    Very good post.

    I would add something though. WLC does have a point, although I haven’t heard him try to discuss how infinitely dense is nonexistent, I can show how an infinitesimally small number is actually zero.

    0.999… is a zero with a repeating 9. Now, if I say that 0.999…=1, you may think I’m nuts, but that’s a true mathematical statement, and I can prove it.

    1 = 3/3 = 3 * 1/3 = 3 * 0.333… = 0.999…

    Now, for the same reason that 0.999…=1, 0.000…=0. Now, I know it looks like I’m saying that 0=0, but what would you get if you subtracted 0.999… from 1? That’s the number I’m talking about, and that is zero.

    So, saying that something is infinitely small, which is why we are saying things are infinitely dense, you could very well be saying that it is nonexistent because it occupies zero space.

    Having said that, I have no other disagreements.

    • http://www.youtube.com/antybu86 Andy Burke

      Timm,

      I follow you up until the end, but I think this is really just touching the whole problem – and physicists do often refer to it as a problem to be avoided – of singularities.

      If I understand you correctly, you seem to be suggesting that because a singularity occupies zero space, then it is effectively nonexistent, but this is wrong.

      How could it occupy zero space yet have a certain (infinitely high) amount of density/temperature/pressure? Well, I think that’s the heart of the problem: as soon as you start plugging zeros and infinites into our current equations, they just stop working.

      Besides, black holes are thought to contain some sort of singularity – but would you describe them as nonexistent?

      Thanks for the comment,
      Andy

    • Johan Biemans

      .99… only = 1 if you round it up. Just like 0,000…1 only = 0 if you round it down.

      1/3 cannot accurately be written in decimal, that is why we say .9…. which is an approximation, really really close, but not actually there.

  • David Mott

    The premise is wrong. The big bang does not suggestion something from nothing and anyone claiming such either doesn’t understand the big bang theory or is being intellectually dishonest. The big bang does not suggest CREATION, it explains EXPANSION of what already existed. End of discussion. My response to these dopes that claim the BB theory says ‘something from nothing’ is ‘shut up you illiterate fuq and get an elementary education on the topic before attempting to disprove it.’

  • Timm Simpkins

    @andy, That’s actually a whole different problem. There is no space for any matter to occupy, therefore there can be no mass/density when there is no space.

    How do we calculate density? We take the mass and divide it by the volume. If there is no space, there is no volume, and there can be no density. D=m/v where v=0 D is undefined. It is not infinite.

    Some people think that division by zero is infinite. If that’s the case, m/0=(infinity), but that wouldn’t work backwards, since we should be able to multiply by v in order to get the mass, but (infinity)*0=0, so if we have 0 mass and 0 volume, we have no density.

    Anyway, I was just explaining how in such a singularity, our math falls apart, and anyone saying anything as a surety at that point is advancing pure speculation. Unfortunately, we have had plenty of physicists that have speculated, and it gives people like WLC a convenient quote.

    • Piemaster

      On density: Sure, when volume is 0, density is undefined. But what if the density isn’t zero. Consider as we go further and further back in time, the mass stays the same but the volume decreases until it is infinitessimally small. This would produces an infinitely large density which is where the infinite density comes from.

      Dividing by zero is not infinity. The concept of a limit allows us to look at what happens really close to zero, but not directly at 0. If we look at the limit as x approaches 0 of 1/x^2, we find that the limit is positive infinity. By the definition of a limit, we are saying not that the point at 0 is positive infinity (the point at 0 is still undefined), but we are saying that no matter how close you get to 0, we can find a number even closer to 0 that provides a larger value than any before it.

      One final point to make: 0.999… = 1 and 0.000… = 0. These are not infinitely close to 1 and infinitely close to 0, they are actually 1 and actually 0. If they were distinct, there would exist a number n such that 0.999… < n < 1 by a property of the real numbers. One possible argument (but not proof) that they are one and the same is that there is no value n that satisfies the above condition. In reality, that is a product of the fact that 0.999… and 1 are the same number.

  • http://godlessons.com Godlessons

    I see where you are coming from, but 0.999… is an infinitesimal number, hence a special case. Any number, when divided by infinity becomes an infinitesimal. 0.000… can be said to be any number divided by infinity. Similarly, 10-10/(infinity) = 9.999… or 10.

    I know I’m picking at nits here, but I do find it interesting to think about, and also interesting to see the anomalies we get with the math if we accept the existence of actual infinities.

    Since we are talking about division by infinity here, that is always going to be the case. There will never be a number that when divided by infinity is greater than zero, because the repeating 0 never ends. You’ll never be able to get behind it to calculate what’s the next smallest number.

    In other words, even saying that something is infinitely dense means that if D=infinity, infinity=m/v = infinity*v=m, which means mass is infinite, since any number multiplied by infinity would be infinity, but that can’t be the case in this instance. If we work it the other way around, v=m/(infinity) or v=0.000… or v=0 That means we must have done something wrong, since in order for density to be infinite, we had to have divided by zero.

    We showed that m=dv, and d and m were infinite right? So, infinity=infinity*0 which makes no sense, since infinity can’t equal zero and be infinite at the same time.

    Another interesting thing is the mass. If density is infinite, that means mass is infinite also, which means that the weight of the universe goes from 1.59486 × 10^55 kg to being greater, which is counter-intuitive. This is where the force of gravity is said to play a part, but the issue is, if we fiddle with the numbers again, dv=m or d*0=m, mass then becomes zero, which means we should technically have no gravity.

    All of this, along with maths that I hardly comprehend is why most physicists are loathed to conclude that there actually is such a thing as a singularity. It is essentially just something they use to explain things like black holes, which can surely happen without a singularity.

    They all must rely on division by zero, which really screws everything up. It is generally believed that there is something wrong with our current theories, and once that problem is found, there will no longer be these anomalous things called singularities.

    Further, other than in set theory, there really is no actual infinity.

    • Piemaster

      Being a mathematician, it irks me to see the phrase “dividing by zero” and “dividing by infinity”. In no case is it legal to do either of these things. For example, the equation 10 – 10/(infinity) makes me shudder. While it is true that the limit as n increases without bound of 10 – 10/n is 10 and it is true that 9.999… = 10 so the shorthand 10 – 10/(infinity) (shudder)= 9.999… can be seen as correct, it misrepresents what is actually going on. There is not a Calculus where infinity is merely plugged into an equation. We may shorthand it that way, but it is mere laziness on the part of the mathematician that causes the confusion.
      Also, on the line “There will never be a number that when divided by infinity is greater than zero.” False. If we take the limit as n increases without bound (i.e. goes to infinity although I despise the inaccuracy of that terminology) of 1/n, we find that while the limit is 0, at any point along the curve 1/n, the point on the curve is always greater than 0.
      In math, there are actually many things which are undefined or indeterminable (could be one of many values). A good example of an indeterminable idea is 0/0. Since 0*1=0, the answer could be 1. However, 0*5=0 and 0*298=0 so it could be either of these numbers as well. This makes the idea 0/0 indeterminable. Similarly, the idea (infinity)*0 is indeterminable. As we can (shudder) divide anything by infinity and get 0, there are several possible answers and, in fact, the term (infinity)*0 should never be utilized without further analysis. In Calculus, L’Hopital’s Rule is a fantastic tool to use in situations such as this when a limit is involved. It allows us to find the limit as x approaches 0 of sin(x)/x as well as the limit of many rational functions.
      One very interesting point is that the mass in the universe is finite. Taking the density equation as D = m/v, we note that an infinitesimally small volume is all that is necessary. With a constant mass, the volume can decrease and get as close to zero as it would like which would increase the density infinitely. Only some finite mass is required. In fact, if the mass varied towards infinity, we would have an (infinity)/(infinity) (shudder shudder shudder) situation which is one of the indeterminable ideas.
      Perhaps there is a problem with our current physics theories. This is why I encourage people to not take the theories lightly. However, the math behind the theories is not wrong, it is merely how well the theories correspond with nature that is in question.
      Oh set theory, creator of all math. Bless us with your knowledge and grant us the power to construct the entirety of mathematics with the only assumption being that the empty set exists. <3

      • Timm Simpkins

        @piemaster,

        I knew that if I kept playing around with numbers, someone would come and straighten me out. :)

        I actually know that we don’t do math with infinity, at least this way. Essentially, it’s not a number anyway. It can be the set of all integers, the set of all rational numbers, the set of all numbers between one and two, etc, but that’s a set, and not a number. That’s about as far as my comprehension of sets goes too.

        Anyway, I play with it because it’s interesting, not because it means anything.

        It would be interesting to know if a mathematician believes that something could be infinitely dense. It seems to me that’s why we stick with the first Planck epoch after the big bang when discussing it.

        I could go with extremely dense, or some other word that may better quantify as dense as you can get without being infinite, but I really have a problem with thinking about actual singularities.

  • cartbeforehorse

    We all take it so for granted these days that our mathematics necessarily point towards something concrete within our reality, that we get tripped up into believing that there is a significance, or a legitimacy to such claims as 1=0.999…

    In this sense, I wanted to repeat (and simplify?) Piemaster’s comments: that playing with maths this way is only useful if you can map it to something concrete in the world. In this case, I believe that 0 and infinity are only theoretical conveniences which help us in our mathematics, rather than being real entities in the universe – hence why we can seem to use them to bend concepts in weird ways.

    If you cannot map the math to something concrete, then in my humble opinion you’re better not to mention it. By opening the topic, you’re only providing diversions from the real discussion (upon which WLC thrives). To make my point more visual: If you’re only going to open your mouth to tell me that there are zero pink elephants dancing on my keyboard as I write, then I’d rather you had shut up, for I never made the claim that pink elephants were significant to anything being said.

    So… keeping away from any silly mathematical digressions, the point I really wanted to open up for debate, was to elaborate on the original point of the post. I’d like someone to explain to me what do we really mean by “nothing”? Does anybody believe that such a concept as “nothing” can actually exist? Does anybody else in this forum believe that space itself is a “thing”, and that even if that space is categorically void of everything, it can still not be defined as “nothing”?

    These questions really boggle my mind, and to be honest – I wonder whether the human mind is capable of understanding them. Let me know if you think otherwise.

  • Timm Simpkins

    @cartbeforehorse I have thought about the question myself. Now I understand that you’re not talking about a limited nothing, like saying that there is nothing in a bottle, because I can imagine that being possible, and even if there is no possibility of nothing existing, it could still be possible for nothing to exist inside pockets within something.

    Now, the interesting thing is to think about how whether the question, “Where did everything come form?” is valid in the first place.

    We seem to experience nothing in a limited sense in our real lives, but not because there is actually nothing there, but because there is no perceivable thing there. This gives us a false sense of “nothing”, and that makes us ask why there is something rather than nothing.

    I have looked at things a different way, namely to ask, “Why is there not nothing?”, which, when asked, leads to the same conclusion as the former.

    The default for everything that exists is possibly merely to exist. Asking why it exists could be a very stupid question in reality, we just don’t know it because our perception can be fooled easily.

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  • http://thesciencepundit.blogspot.com/ The Science Pundit

    To add to Piemaster’s criticism of Timm, part of your problem is that you pulled a switch, and hence your entire argument is a non sequitor.

    You start by saying “I can show how an infinitesimally small number is actually zero” (which by the way, it’s not), and you conclude by saying “So, saying that something is infinitely small …” Those are two diferent terms which mean different things.

    Also, as has already been pointed out to you, saying that 0.000…=0 actually is saying that 0=0 and 1-0.999… is 0 and involves no infinitesmals. I think that the confusion many people suffer from is that they see the subtraction as a brute calculation within time. Since 0.999… is a repeating decimal, one can never finish the calculation (although there are ways to arive at the answer, which in this case is 0), and the partial result if you were to stop the calculation at any point is greater than 0. In other words, many people are stuck on Zeno’s Paradoxes.

    Also Johan, you’re simply wrong. 1/3 can be written in decimal form: it’s the repeating decimal 0.333… And 0.999… is in fact equal to 1; it is not an approximation. And finally, you seem to think that 0.000…1 is a number. I’m sorry but that expression is nonsensical and meaningless. A repeating decimal has no end. So how can you stick a 1 at the end of something endless?

  • cartbeforehorse

    @Timm Simpkins

    I agree with everything you’ve said, and though I’d love to elaborate (this subject fascinates me) I think you’ve made the point well enough.

    However, to move things on while also keeping my point suitably brief, can I ask whether you think your theoretical empty bottle contains gravity? That is to say: is gravity a “thing”? And if so, can the bottle ever really contain “nothing”?

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  • Alumno deVerum

    I am a Deist. And the reason I am a Deist is directly related to this question.

    As a Deist I believe science is compatible with a belief in God. And as science is logical that belief must itself be logical. Therefore it is essential to understand what logic is and how it is derived.

    The phrase “I think therefore I am” is a self-referential observation that provides certain knowledge of our own conscious existence (though it says nothing about the nature of the “I”). But that observation can also be put in the form of a syllogism which is the formal expression of a logical statement:

    I am a thinking being.
    In order to think a being must exist.
    Therefore I must exist.

    This is the basis of all philosophy and everything we know about logic is derived from it; proper distribution of terms to avoid non-sequiturs, the copula which establishes the relationship between those terms, either positive or negative, by using a form of the words “is” or “is not”, and the fallacy of contradictions because how could I be aware of myself if I did not exist? In order to better understand it let’s look at it in generic form:

    A is B major premise
    B is C minor premise
    A is C conclusion

    Notice how the (middle) term “B” occurs in both the major and minor premises thus connecting the term “A” to the term “C” allowing for a conclusion. This connection must exist so if a statement does not conform to this or any other rule of logic it must be dismissed without exception. So how does this apply to Deism?

    Traditionally attempts to answer the question, “why is there something instead of nothing?” have failed because, if we assume our common materialistic notion of “nothingness” as a void that is absolutely “without property” is correct, “something from nothing” is a non sequitur. But is this definition correct?

    According to the rules of logic as revealed above there are only two ways we can legitimately derive definitions; induction (observation or experience guided by the scientific method), and deduction (the syllogism). Since we see “something” when we look around us we cannot experience “nothingness” so the only way we can define it is by deduction.

    Utilizing the methods allowed by those rules then we should be able to strip away all the permutations of existence simply by putting a form of the words “is not” (the negative form of the copula in the syllogism) in front of “being as a whole”. This ought to give us a definition of “no being” or “nothingness” as absolutely “without property”. But potential is a property and the world could not exist if it did not have the potential to. So how can “nothing” have potential?

    First we must recognize the concept of absolute nothingness is not the same as the absence of something in the world. Absolute means just that. ABSOLUTE! No property. No potential. No exceptions. Therefore, since the world exists, logically “nothingness” is not absolute and thus must have at least one property. So perhaps the question should be rephrased as “what is it about nothingness that keeps it from being absolute?”

    “Nothingness” is the only thing (and since it has property it is a thing) that can be thought of in completely negative terms except for the fact it is a concept that can be thought of. Nothingness is a concept. You’re thinking about it right now!

    So even when “being” is stripped of every other attribute we are still left with the idea of nothingness. This is because of what is known as the principle (or fallacy) of composition which says that even though it must still be logical a whole, or absolute in this case, may not be subject to the same restrictions as it’s parts, or that which is not absolute. Therefore because it is comprehensible “nothingness” is logically exempt from complete negation. However it has no other property. Now one could rightly argue that potential or the ability to be comprehended are not properties. And if it turns out the world is basically materialistic they would be right. However if the world is basically idealistic they both could very well be properties. But if it turns out they are what does that mean?

    Consider a scale with 1 ounce of gold in each pan. The scale would read 0 because the pans are balanced but there would still be 2 ounces of gold. So in this case 0 means “no difference” or “equilibrium” not “empty”.

    Likewise what we call “nothingness” is not an empty void “without property” but is actually a neutral concept (which is something) permitting us to now define it as a concept in absolute equilibrium. All other definitions must, for the time being, be dismissed as unfounded and meaningless. So how can the world emerge from that?

    Imagine a straight line that extends outward forever.

    Such a one dimensional line is analogous to “nothingness” by this definition because “nothingness” has but one property- it is a concept in equilibrium (this technique is called the principle of equivalence and was used by Albert Einstein to equate gravity with acceleration when he formulated the theory of relativity).

    Because it may bend in any number of ways there are an infinite number of waveforms that exist in potential in such a line.

    Now if things happen simply because they can happen and they can happen because they don’t result in contradiction then as long as the probability of an event does not equal zero (which is what happens when two identical but opposite waves try to emerge at the same time and cancel out) they may occur for no reason other than the fact there is nothing to prevent them from occurring. Therefore any of these waveforms may emerge spontaneously by themselves or in combination by simple addition.

    By themselves the most basic waveforms (sine waves) have no meaning but, utilizing a technique developed by the French mathematician Jean Baptiste Fourier, we can see that merged with others they can create radically different patterns which not only match the same patterns we see in our world they are also analogous to the emergence of an infinite number of other universes each with different physics.

    In other words in this model there is a spectrum of self organizing universes. And they don’t just obey mathematical rules they are mathematics- manifest. Ours just happens to be one that is conducive to life explaining why it seems so finely tuned.

    However all the evidence we have says that for a concept to exist there must be a mind to consider it. For example you can have 9 coins in one hand and 9 stones in the other but where is the number 9 apart from what you hold? You cannot point to anything in nature and say, “This is the number 9 by itself.” You can only think about it.

    A materialist may reply that the number 9 must be expressed physically as stones or coins to exist but what is the “physical”? Albert Einstein proved that mass (matter) is just energy in particle form. Then the physicist Erwin Schrodinger discovered that energy could be manifested as a wave as well as a particle. And finally another scientist, Max Born, showed that waves are just the probability distribution of a possible event. Probability, in turn, is mathematical in nature and mathematics itself is nothing more than the rules that govern numbers which are concepts.

    Others say the numbers themselves are merely the products of material processes in the brain we impose on the world. But one can not assert the brain and its processes are material in order to prove the brain and its processes are material as that is a circular argument. The brain is made of tissue composed of cells built from molecules of atoms that are particles of matter which is energy…

    Even the evidence of science itself seems to me to cast doubt on materialism.

    One of the consequences of the wave/particle nature of physics touched on above is Werner Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. Simply stated, this points out a fundamental mathematical law that says that an observer can never know both the position and the speed or frequency of a “particle/wave” at once. To know it’s position energy must be at rest and in particle form and to know its speed it must be a wave. Since it can’t be both at rest and in motion at the same time, it creates uncertainty.

    So depending on how it is observed energy can appear as either a particle or a wave. The experimenter determines which form it will take by the way she decides to measure it. If she sets up an experiment to detect particles that is what she’ll find. Likewise, if she wants to find waves she will see them. Not both at once.

    The uncertainty principle has created a great many problems for physicists and philosophers alike. The consequences that arise from it deeply troubled many scholars when it was first set forth, Einstein among them. He, along with the scientists Boris Podolsky and Nathan Rosen (tests based on their views are called EPR experiments after them) pointed out that if two particles are produced by the breakdown of another and one of them is then sent off into space while the one that remains is examined to determine it’s direction of spin, for example, it’s twin must instantly assume the opposite spin in order to keep from violating the law of conservation no matter how far apart they are!

    Up until it is observed all the properties associated with a particle, including its direction of spin, exist only in potential so that trait is also bound by chance and it could just as easily have spun the other way. But, by what mechanism does the other particle “know” to assume the spin opposite it’s counterpart?

    The fastest means of transmitting information available is light but even it can only go so fast and nothing can make it go faster. It travels at the incredible speed of 186,000 mile per second, but even that takes time and what if an observer on another planet tests that particle for direction of spin before the information can reach it? Is there a chance it could assume the same spin as its partner and violate the conservation laws?

    If not and someone on Earth can “determine” the properties of a particle light years away she has never seen simply by measuring another one here, it would seem that the role of the observer in keeping the universe orderly is more important than previously thought. And the reported results of EPR experiments do seem to confirm that order is indeed maintained.

    There are only two possibilities here; one the world requires an observer, and two, the world does not require an observer. A transcendent observer would have no problem seeing the cosmos in it’s entirety and keep it orderly but in an effort to do away with the need for such an observer while avoiding the problem of super luminal information transference some materialists have advanced what is known as the “many worlds theory by decoherence”, a hypothesis which holds that in order to avoid uncertainty whenever there is an event with more than one possible outcome the entire universe actually splits like a wave in an interferometer to accommodate every single one. They reason that if all possible outcomes occur then it doesn’t matter if they are seen or not.

    However for it to work there must be a way by which a universe can tell what it’s sister world is doing so it can do the opposite. The only mechanism I am aware of that has been put forth which can allow for the communication necessary for it to do that (possibly because there may be no alternative) is a shared history up to the point of differentiation where they “branch”.

    If true considering the rapidity of nuclear interactions as well as the sheer number of them and the fact that there is more than a handful of probable outcomes for any event and all must occur separately, parallel universes of this type must be being created continuously at a rate that boggles the mind. Imagine tossing just one coin ten times. The first flip would produce two coins (heads in one world tails in the other), the second would create four since each of those would have two possible outcomes.

    The third throw makes eight, then sixteen, thirty two, sixty four and so on until by the tenth flip you have produced one thousand twenty four coins each in their own separate universe (ten more and you will create over a million)!

    The problem here is obvious. It appears to violate the laws of conservation. However there is a very good philosophical reason to think this is not possible and it is simply this; if “new” energy can be created from nothing (in the materialistic sense) then shouldn’t it be possible “old” energy could be destroyed at the same rate and keep the level of energy in the universe constant?

    But even if we assume the conservation laws are not broken it still begs the question, “how can an infinite number of universes be created out of a finite amount of energy?”

    When a wave of a finite amount of energy propagates the total power in it initially stays the same but it spreads out over a greater distance, thinning and thus getting weaker at any particular place. If the ocean is wide enough even a tsunami will eventually become nothing more than a ripple unless more energy is supplied to it to maintain its strength and there is no evidence I am aware of that is happening anywhere in the universe (even if we did postulate an infinite reservoir of energy “out there” somewhere what force here could possibly be strong enough to channel it and keep it from flooding the system and tearing this world apart?). In fact observation of the residual heat of the Big Bang known as the cosmic background radiation indicates the universe is getting cooler and fainter as it expands suggesting the amount of energy in the universe is, indeed, finite. Splitting a wave only accelerates the process in which case the cosmos would become so dilute so fast there would never be enough energy in any specific universe long enough to form the matter we see around us and the world as we know it could not exist.

    Some advocates of this theory even go so far as to claim that since they are isolated from each other the conservation laws in each individual universe created in this way are maintained. However the only way to know if that is the case is to measure the energy levels in each universe. But because that is impossible I have no choice but to dismiss such claims as little more than a desperate attempt to save a theory that has no evidence to support it and is thus little more than pure speculation. So given all these problems I have no reason to believe materialism is true.

    However we have seen that doesn’t mean there are no other universes only that there is no reason to believe they can come into being in this way. So it may be there are an infinite number of types of universes but not every variation of a type may be realized.

    But if, as the evidence suggests, the world is basically concept and concepts must be observed what was observing it before intelligent life evolved? This “problem” is really no problem at all. Lines may curve in many ways. One is a circle.

    Bending the line representing the “concept of absolute equilibrium” in on itself makes it self referential or self observing. That also makes It conscious because structurally It is identical to the self referential observation “I am”.

    I call this foundational state the Prime Observer because It is literally observing Itself. The circle in this model is perfectly smooth and therefore in absolute equilibrium but contains within It an infinite number of potential worlds which may emerge spontaneously as an epiphenomenon or side effect. In other words It is the simplest possible structure but contains within It all the complexities that can ever be.

    As it is a concept we can say “nothingness” is not “nothing”. That is a contradiction thus such a state cannot exist. Just saying “nonexistence exists” is absurd. But an unobserved concept is also paradoxical and therefore unstable. It must collapse into a state that is stable but in order to do that it must have something in common with that state. Since the only property that which we commonly call “nothingness” has is that of a concept it can only be reduced to something else that is also a concept to avoid a non sequitur. All it has to do to accomplish that is bend back on itself. Nothing more. And as it only has one property the model also solves the “who created the creator” problem because logically it can’t be reduced any further.

    But does this model match what we see in the world? The answer, in my opinion, is yes.

    The first evidence of the dual nature of matter touched on earlier was discovered in 1801 when a medical doctor named Thomas Young built a device called an interferometer and sent a beam of light through it. Until that time it was thought light was composed of only particles because Isaac Newton showed light “rays” seem to travel in straight lines since they leave sharp distinct shadows when they strike an object whereas waves can bend around objects such as boats in the water.

    The instrument Young built is very simple. An interferometer is just a box with a pin hole at the exact center of the front end to admit light, a panel with two off center slits in it which divides the front of the interior from the back, and a photographic screen at the rear. If light really is made of particles they should travel in straight lines and either strike the panel between the slits so they could not be observed on the screen or, if they had just the right trajectory, pass through the slits and show up on the screen as a concentration of dots right behind the openings and no where else. But if light is a wave it should spread out like a ripple and strike the entire center panel. The slits in the divider would then act as new points of origin for that part of the light that happened to fall there. As they passed through they would, again, spread out like ripples but as there are now two of them they would interfere with each other. That is when a trough of a wave met another trough (or a crest met a crest) they would reinforce each other. However when a trough met a crest they would cancel out. Together these would appear as smooth and unbroken light and dark bands on the screen. And that is exactly what Thomas Young saw proving light was a wave.

    About a century later though Einstein revived the particle theory of light in order to explain a phenomenon known as the photo electric effect. It had been observed that an electric current could be produced by shining a light of a specific wave length on certain metals. But other frequencies would have no effect no matter how intense the illumination. For instance a very bright red light was unable to cause an electric current but a very dim blue one could.

    Einstein theorized that the current was initiated by the light kicking out electrons from the metal itself. Because the electrons were bound to the atom so tightly however it would take a great deal of energy to dislodge them. But if light was a wave it would spread the energy out too thin. The only way it would work is if the energy of the light was concentrated in a particle. That was why a bright red light could not create a current but a dim blue one could. Even though they are more numerous the individual particles of red light are just not energetic enough to overcome the force binding the electron to the atom. But the individual particles of blue light are much more energetic and thus can knock the electrons out and make an electric current.

    So energy can take the form of a particle or a wave depending on how it is observed.

    But what happens if the light source for the interferometer Young built is calibrated so that only enough energy is produced to create one photon at a time and they are sent through individually? Common sense says they should produce a particle distribution pattern behind each slot. And that is what is seen when only one slit at a time is open.

    However if both slits are open instead of just two isolated groupings behind each one as you might expect the individual photons will build up a speckled wave pattern across the entire screen. That is the result is a combination of both wave and particle distribution patterns.

    From a materialistic point of view this makes no sense at all because it requires a lone particle go through two slits at the same time and interfere with itself. But such a result is not only perfectly understandable and compatible with the model presented here it is predicted by it because it says there is no “particle” going through the device. Only mathematical waves of chance (that can interfere with each other just like any other kind of wave) which collapse as “particles” somewhere in the area allowed by their probability curves when they hit the screen. And according to all the evidence I have mathematics appears to require an observer.

    But as compelling as all this is the main reason I reject materialism is that it seems to be anti-reason because it violates the rules of logic by which I am bound. Materialism holds that all property is physical. Therefore there can be no non-physical properties. However if that is the case then nothingness (which is the total absence of all physical property) must be absolute. But if that’s true we wouldn’t be here to ponder the question because that means “something from nothing” in materialism is a non-sequitur. That doesn’t mean materialists haven’t made the attempt to connect being and nothingness, though. They have.

    The arguments vary a little but they all basically go like this: The universe is an energy field that curves. The amount of curvature determines how much energy is in it. It may have a great deal of curvature locally but if the energy invested in the outward expansion of the universe caused by the Big Bang is exactly balanced by the force of gravity trying to pull it all back in then they will cancel out and the overall curvature of the universe would be zero and there would be no net energy to the universe as a whole. And since matter is just a form of energy it too would be equivalent to zero or nothing.

    The reason why this argument fails is because proponents of it are confusing (intentionally or not) zero meaning “no difference” with zero meaning “nothing”. But if there are no nonphysical properties zero in this case means “nothing” defined as “absolutely without property”. So if the world is basically material it could never emerge from nothingness as they have absolutely no connection at all. This is because 0/2=0. In other words half of nothing is still nothing.

    But it does more than fail. It actually suggests that no materialistic explanation for existence can ever be found. This is because complexity arises from simplicity not the other way around. And this does seem to be the simplest possible description of the universe. Half of it is positive and goes one way and the other half is negative and goes the opposite way. It cannot be made any simpler so if a logical materialistic reason for being cannot be arrived at here it probably doesn’t exist.

    So the advocates of materialism are reduced to trying to equate an explanation for existence with time when they say “if the universe has always existed it doesn’t require explanation” But there is no reason to think such an explanation is time dependent. The argument I make here also assumes that existence is eternal. But it is based on fundamental principles. Not an endless chain of cause and effect.

    Thus materialism is forced into an unexplainable infinite regression (which is essentially the same as the “who created the creator” problem) that maintains (counter to the evidence of the Big Bang that the universe is finite in material “time”) that the cosmos has always existed or it is derived from something else that is basically material and has always existed without explanation (for example even the best current explanation for the origin of the universe, the lambda cold dark matter model which except for the fact it doesn’t “close the circle” appears almost identical to the Deistic model presented here, must assume a pre-existing “quantum foam”).

    But if the cosmos is intrinsically unexplainable then it would be fundamentally mystical and we would have no reason to think any logic based system of inquiry could explain anything else because even though it says the cosmos has always existed it can’t explain why the cosmos has always existed. And that directly contradicts the ability of science to not only describe but predict phenomena. A feat that would seem unlikely if the world were not basically logical. And if, as all the evidence of science suggests, the world is logical it must have a logical reason for being.

    Therefore I have no reason to think materialism is true because not only does it seem to result in contradiction (how can an infinite number of universes be created out of a finite amount of energy?), it doesn’t match what we see in the world (remember the double slit experiment?), and it can’t even explain itself (0/2=0). Any other theory with problems like these would have been dismissed long, long ago. Therefore I have no choice but to dismiss it myself and accept the only alternative available to me which is Deism as defined by the model presented above.

    However there are two questions remaining that must be answered; is this model compatible with the definition of God and is it scientific?

    First is this model compatible with the definition of God? To answer this question we must understand how the concept of God first arose.

    People are pattern seeking animals. The recognition of pattern is one of the most basic characteristics of consciousness. Psychologists have determined that our sense of beauty arises from the appreciation of form and symmetry. Rhythm in music, rhyme in poetry, form in sculpture, all instill in us a sort of awe, sometimes to the point of being almost hypnotic. Even the most abstract paintings display subtle patterns that can induce the same feelings we sometimes experience when looking at a particularly beautiful sunset or mountain vista.

    The association of order with intelligence and the recognition of order in the world would, it seems to me, naturally lead early men and women to conclude that a supreme mind, similar to their own, created the universe. Therefore the only definition of God that is logically necessary is the earliest. It is an awareness upon which the cosmos is contingent. Nothing more. Attributes such as omnipotence and omniscience were probably just added on to this core definition later by early thinkers with no knowledge of natural law.

    And those characteristics apparently weren’t really part of most ancient conceptions of God anyway. For example in Greek mythology Cronus created the world but was then overthrown by Zeus. A feat that would not have been possible if Cronus were omnipotent. So even though the definition of God arrived at here is not “traditional” it is legitimate.

    Lastly is this form of Deism scientific? Again yes, I believe it is because it meets all the requirements of the scientific method which are:

    * Ask a question (why is there something rather than nothing?)
    * Do background research (philosophy, mathematics, logic,and physics are all represented)
    * Construct a hypothesis (the model presented above)
    * Test your hypothesis by doing an experiment (the double slit experiment)
    * Analyze your data and draw a conclusion (the results of the double slit experiment match predictions made by the model)
    * Communicate your results (this essay)

    Thus may we construct a model, derived from logic itself, providing us with a possible answer to our original question, “why is there something instead of nothing?” But though it is not a proof when contrasted with the apparent contradictions, which must be dismissed, arising from the only alternative (atheistic materialism) I know of it seems, to me at least, the only reasonable conclusion. But it’s consequences are clear. God exists. However It is the God of Deism not Theism and there is no purpose other than that which we choose to make for ourselves.

  • Himangsu Sekhar Pal

    A CRITIQUE OF THE VOID

    A.Circular Reasoning

    In his article ‘The other side of time’ (2000) scientist Victor J. Stenger has written that as per the theory of quantum electrodynamics electron-positron (anti-electron) pairs can appear spontaneously for brief periods of time practically out of nothing, which clearly shows that anything that has a beginning need not have to have a cause of that beginning.
    From here he has concluded that our universe may also come literally out of nothing due to quantum fluctuation in the void, and therefore we need not have to imagine that God has done this job.
    But is it true that electron-positron (anti-electron) pairs are appearing literally out of “nothing”? Are scientists absolutely certain that the so-called void is a true void indeed? Because here there is a counter-claim also: God is there, and that God is everywhere. So actually nothing is coming out of “nothing”, only something is coming out of something. Here they will perhaps say: as there is no proof for God’s existence so far, so why should one have to believe that the void here is not a true void? But even if there is no proof for God’s existence, still then it can be shown that scientists’ claim that the universe has literally come out of nothing is a pure case of circular reasoning. If believers say that the void is not a true void at all, and if scientists still then hold that it is nothing but a void, then this is only because they are absolutely certain that God does not exist, and also because they think that God’s non-existence is so well-established a fact that it needs no further proof for substantiation. But if they are absolutely certain that God does not exist, then they are also absolutely certain that God is not the architect, designer, creator of our universe, because it is quite obvious that a non-existent God cannot be the architect, designer, etc. So their starting premise is this: God does not exist, and therefore our universe is definitely not the creation of a God. But if they start from the above premise, then will it be very difficult to reach to the same conclusion?
    But their approach here could have been somehow different. They could have said: well, regarding void, it is found that there is some controversy. Therefore we will not assume that it is a void, rather we will prove that it is such. Then they could have proceeded to give an alternate explanation for the origin of the universe, in which there will be neither any quantum fluctuation in the void, nor any hand of God to be seen anywhere. And their success here could have settled the matter for all time to come.
    By simply ignoring a rumour one cannot kill it, rather it will remain as it is. But if one takes some more trouble on him and exposes that it is nothing but a rumour, then it will die a natural death with no further chance of revival. Let us say that the saying that there is a God and that He is everywhere is nothing but a rumour persisting for thousands of years among mankind. What scientists have done here is this: they have simply ignored the rumour and thus kept it alive. But it would have been far better for them if they could have killed it, as suggested by me.

    B. “Circular Reasoning” Case Reexamined

    There can be basically two types of universe: (1) universe created by God, supposing that there is a God; (2) universe not created by God, supposing that there is no God. Again universe created by God can also be of three types:
    (1a) Universe in which God need not have to intervene at all after its creation. This is the best type of universe that can be created by God.
    (1b) Universe in which God has actually intervened from time to time, but his intervention is a bare minimum.
    (1c) Universe that cannot function at all without God’s very frequent intervention. This is the worst type of universe that can be created by God.
    Therefore we see that there can be four distinct types of universes, and our universe may be any one of the above four types: (1a), (1b), (1c), (2). In case of (1a), scientists will be able to give natural explanation for each and every physical event that has happened in the universe after its origin, because after its creation there is no intervention by God at any moment of its functioning. Only giving natural explanation for its coming into existence will be problematic. In case of (1b) also, most of the events will be easily explained away, without imagining that there is any hand of God behind these events. But for those events where God had actually intervened, scientists will never be able to give any natural explanation. Also explaining origin of the universe will be equally problematic. But in case of (1c), most of the events will remain unexplained, as in this case God had to intervene very frequently. This type of universe will be just like the one as envisaged by Newton: “Gravity explains the motions of the planets, but it cannot explain who set the planets in motion. God governs all things and knows all that is or can be done.” So we can with confidence say that our universe is not of this type, otherwise scientists could not have found natural explanation for most of the physical events. In case of type (2) universe, here also there will be natural explanation for each and every physical event, and there will be natural explanation for the origin of the universe also. So from the mere fact that scientists have so far been able to give natural explanation for each and every physical event, it cannot be concluded that our universe is a type (2) universe, because this can be a type (1a) universe as well. The only difference between type (1a) and type (2) universe is this: whereas in case of (1a) no natural explanation will ever be possible for the origin of the universe, it will not be so in case of (2). Therefore until and unless scientists can give a natural explanation for the origin of the universe, they cannot claim that it is a type (2) universe. And so, until and unless scientists can give this explanation, they can neither claim that the so-called void is a true void. So scientists cannot proceed to give a natural explanation for the origin of the universe with an a priori assumption that the void is a real void, because their failure or success in giving this explanation will only determine as to whether this is a real void or not.

  • Himangsu SekharPal

    Proof That There Is A God
    Or
    Proof that God has not kept Himself hidden

    A, Properties of a Whole Thing

    If at the beginning there was something at all, and if that something was the whole thing, then it can be shown that by logical necessity that something will have to be spaceless, timeless, changeless, deathless. This is by virtue of that something being the whole thing. Something is the whole thing means there cannot be anything at all outside of that something; neither space, nor time, nor matter, nor anything else. It is the alpha and omega of existence. But, if it is the whole thing, then it must have to be spaceless, timeless, changeless, deathless. Otherwise it will be merely a part of a bigger whole thing. Now let us denote this something by a big X. Now, can this X be in any space? No, it cannot be. If it is, then where is that space itself located? It must have to be in another world outside of X. But by definition there cannot be anything outside of X. Therefore X cannot be in any space. Again, can this X have any space? No, it cannot have. If we say that it can have, then we will again be in a logical contradiction. Because if X can have any space, then that space must have to be outside of it. Therefore when we consider X as a whole, then we will have to say that neither can it be in any space, nor can it have any space. In every respect it will be spaceless. For something to have space it must already have to be in some space. Even a prisoner has some space, although this space is confined within the four walls of his prison cell. But the whole thing, if it is really the whole thing, cannot have any space. If it can have, then it no longer remains the whole thing. It will be self-contradictory for a whole thing to have any space. Similarly it can be shown that this X can neither be in time, nor have any time. For a whole thing there cannot be any ‘before’, any ‘after’. For it there can be only an eternal ‘present’. It will be in a timeless state. If the whole thing is in time, then it is already placed in a world where there is a past, a present, and a future, and therefore it is no longer the whole thing. Now, if X as a whole is spaceless, timeless, then that X as a whole will also be changeless. There might always be some changes going on inside X, but when the question comes as to whether X itself is changing as a whole, then we are in a dilemma. How will we measure that change? In which time-scale shall we have to put that X in order for us to be able to measure that change? That time-scale must necessarily have to be outside of X. But there cannot be any such time-scale. So it is better not to say anything about its change as a whole. For the same reason X as a whole can never cease to be. It cannot die, because death is also a change. Therefore we see that if X is the first thing and the whole thing, then X will have the properties of spacelessness, timelessness, changelessness, deathlessness by virtue of its being the whole thing. It is a logical necessity. Now, this X may be anything; it may be light, it may be sound, or it may be any other thing. Whatever it may be, it will have the above four properties of X. Now, if we find that there is nothing in this universe that possesses the above four properties of X, then we can safely conclude that at the beginning there was nothing at all, and that therefore scientists are absolutely correct in asserting that the entire universe has simply originated out of nothing. But if we find that there is at least one thing in the universe that possesses these properties, then we will be forced to conclude that that thing was the first thing, and that therefore scientists are wrong in their assertion that at the beginning there was nothing. This is only because a thing can have the above four properties by virtue of its being the first thing and by virtue of this first thing being the whole thing, and not for any other reason. Scientists have shown that in this universe light, and light only, is having the above four properties. They have shown that for light time, as well as distance, become unreal. I have already shown elsewhere that a timeless world is a deathless, changeless world. For light even infinite distance becomes zero, and therefore volume of an infinite space also becomes zero. So the only conclusion that can be drawn from this is that at the beginning there was light, and that therefore scientists are wrong in asserting that at the beginning there was nothing.
    Another very strong reason can be given in support of our belief that at the beginning there was light. The whole thing will have another very crucial and important property: immobility. Whole thing as a whole thing cannot move at all, because it has nowhere to go. Movement means going from one place to another place, movement means changing of position with respect to something else. But if the whole thing is really the whole thing, then there cannot be anything else other than the whole thing. Therefore if the whole thing moves at all, then with respect to which other thing is it changing its position? And therefore it cannot have any movement, it is immobile. Now, if light is the whole thing, then light will also have this property of immobility. Now let us suppose that the whole thing occupies an infinite space, and that light is the whole thing. As light is the whole thing, and as space is also infinite here, then within this infinite space light can have the property of immobility if, and only if, for light even the infinite distance is reduced to zero. Scientists have shown that this is just the case. From special theory of relativity we come to know that for light even infinite distance becomes zero, and that therefore it cannot have any movement, because it has nowhere to go. It simply becomes immobile. This gives us another reason to believe that at the beginning there was light, and that therefore scientists are wrong in asserting that at the beginning there was nothing.
    I know very well that an objection will be raised here, and that it will be a very severe objection. I also know what will be the content of that objection: can a whole thing beget another whole thing? I have said that at the beginning there was light, and that light was the whole thing. Again I am saying that the created light is also the whole thing, that is why it has all the properties of the whole thing. So the whole matter comes to this: a whole thing has given birth to another whole thing, which is logically impossible. If the first thing is the whole thing, then there cannot be a second whole thing, but within the whole thing there can be many other created things, none of which will be a whole thing. So the created light can in no way be a whole thing, it is logically impossible. But is it logically impossible for the created light to have all the properties of the whole thing? So what I intend to say here is this: created light is not the original light, but created light has been given all the properties of the original light, so that through the created light we can have a glimpse of the original light. If the created light was not having all these properties, then who would have believed that in this universe it is quite possible to be spaceless, timeless, changeless, deathless? If nobody believes in Scriptures, and if no one has any faith in personal revelation or mystical experience, and if no one wants to depend on any kind of authority here, and if no one even tries to know Him through meditation, then how can the presence of God be made known to man, if not through a created thing only? So, not through Vedas, nor through Bible, nor through Koran, nor through any other religious books, but through light and light only, God has revealed himself to man. That is why we find in created light all the most essential properties of God: spacelessness, timelessness, changelessness, deathlessness.

    Footnote: If the universe is treated as one whole unit, then it can be said to be spaceless, timeless. I first got this idea from an article by Dr. Lee Smolin read in the internet. Rest things I have developed. This is as an acknowledgement.

    B. CLIMAX

    I think we need no further proof for the existence of God. That light has all the five properties of the whole thing is sufficient. I will have to explain.
    Scientists are trying to establish that our universe has started from nothing. We want to contradict it by saying that it has started from something. When we are saying that at the beginning there was something, we are saying that there was something. We are not saying that there was some other thing also other than that something. Therefore when we are saying that at the beginning there was something, we are saying that at the beginning there was a whole thing. Therefore we are contradicting the statement that our universe has started from nothing by the statement that our universe has started from a whole thing.
    I have already shown that a whole thing will have the properties of spacelessness, timelessness, changelessness, deathlessness, immobility (STCDI). This is by logical necessity alone. It is logically contradictory to say that a whole thing can have space. Let us suppose that the whole thing is having space. Then the so-called whole thing along with the space that it is having will constitute the real whole thing. If my arguments that I have offered so far to show that the whole thing will always have the above five properties by virtue of its being the whole thing are sound, and if they cannot be faulted from any angle, then I can make the following statements:
    1. In this universe only a whole thing can have the properties of STCDI by logical necessity alone.
    2. If the universe has started from nothing, then nothing in this universe will have the properties of STCDI.
    3. If the universe has started from a whole thing, then also nothing other than the initial whole thing will have the properties of STCDI. This is only because a whole thing cannot beget another whole thing.
    4. But in this universe we find that light, in spite of its not being a whole thing, is still having the properties of STCDI.
    5. This can only happen if, and only if, the initial whole thing itself has purposefully given its own properties to light, in order to make its presence known to us through light.
    6. But for that the initial whole thing must have to have consciousness.
    7. So, from above we can come to the following conclusion: the fact that light, in spite of its not being a whole thing, still possesses the properties of STCDI, is itself a sufficient proof for the fact that the universe has started from a conscious whole thing, and that this conscious whole thing is none other than God.

  • William Trice Battle

    There is one issue that you fail to bring up in your post..

    All of these theories that try to salvage the idea of an eternal universe use imaginary numbers… And philosophically, this is absurd:

    http://philpapers.org/rec/DELEFI

    • anty

       Interesting. I’d love to read the paper, but I’m not paying $35 for it. Would you mind summarizing their argument? I’d also be interested in how they link this to Vilenkin’s model because I was unaware that it relied on imaginary time.

  • William Trice Battle

    No I dont have access to it at the moment but I do up at the university so I will see what I can do… It might be illegal for me to share it from their computers im not sure..

    But for now, since you are interested, I have a link to the introduction that you could read because it does a pretty good job of summarizing it:

    http://www.jstor.org/pss/20117541

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